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Cisco 300-206 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What is the lowest combination of ASA model and license providing 1 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces?
A. ASA 5505 with failover license option
B. ASA 5510 Security+ license option
C. ASA 5520 with any license option
D. ASA 5540 with AnyConnect Essentials License option
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which option is a different type of secondary VLAN?
A. Transparent
B. Promiscuous
C. Virtual
D. Community
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What is the best description of a unified ACL on a Cisco Firewall
A. An Ipv4 ACL with Ipv4 support
B. An ACL the support EtherType in additional Ipv6
C. An ACL with both Ipv4 and Ipv6 functionality
D. An Ipv6 ACL with Ipv4 backward compatitiblity
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/intro_intro.htmlexam 300-206 exam question q3

 

QUESTION 4
Choose two correct statements about private-vlan.
A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID
that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch)
B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also
configured as protected (same switch)
C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs
D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan
E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ?
Correct Answer: DE
You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is
propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not
take
effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI.
A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.

 

QUESTION 5
What are Options of capture command
A. host
B. real-time
C. type
Correct Answer: BC
real-time, type, interface,buffer, match, packet-lenght,trace,circular-buffer, ethernet-type,acces-list, headers-only

 

QUESTION 6
Which command is the first that you enter to check whether or not ASDM is installed on the ASA?
A. Show ip
B. Show running-config asdm
C. Show running-config boot
D. Show version
E. Show route
Correct Answer: Dexam 300-206 exam question q6

 

QUESTION 7exam 300-206 exam question q7

Which two option are protocol and tools are used by management plane when using cisco ASA general management
plane hardening ?
A. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Routing Protocol Authentication
D. Threat detection
E. Syslog
F. ICMP unreachables
G. Cisco URL Filtering
Correct Answer: BE
http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/firewall-best-practices.html

exam 300-206 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
CSM (or Prime Infra) Dashboardsexam 300-206 exam question q8

Correct Answer:
Top Destinations –This report ranks the session destinations of all built/deny firewall events received by Security
Manager. The report shows the destination IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the
percentage
of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph
that represents a specific destination to see report information about the top sources and top services associated with
that
destination (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Sources –This report ranks the session sources of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager. The
report shows the source IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the percentage of the
count
compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that
represents a specific source to see report information about the top destinations and top services associated with that
source (see
Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Services –This report ranks the destination services of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager.
TCP and UDP services include the port number. The report shows the service, the count of the number of events for
each
service, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in
the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that represents a specific service to see report information about the top destinations and top
sources associated with that service (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Infected Hosts –This report ranks the top infected hosts for traffic originating from infected hosts to black- or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the IP address of the infected
host
with the firewall interface name on which the event was detected in parentheses, the count of the number of
connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each address, the count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report.
Top Malware Ports –This report ranks the top destination ports for traffic originating from infected hosts to black or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the destination malware port,
the
count of the number of connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each port, the count of the number of
connections that were blocked (dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum
of
all counts in the report.
Top Malware Sites –This report ranks the top botnet sites (black or gray-listed sites) for all inbound and outbound
sessions based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the following information:
IP Address–The IP address that is indicated as the malicious host in botnet events, either on the black list or the grey
list.
Malware Site–The domain name or IP address in the dynamic filter database to which the traffic was initiated.
List Type–Whether the site is on the black list or the grey list. Connections Logged–The count of the number of
connections logged or monitored for each site. Connections Blocked–The count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering for each site. Threat Level–The botnet threat level for the site, from very low to very
high, or none. Category–The category of threat the site poses as defined in the botnet database, such as botnet,
Trojan,
spyware, and so on.
VPN dashboards
Top Bandwidth Users –This report ranks the VPN users who consumed the most bandwidth. The report shows the
usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and received, and the percentage of reported bandwidth used
by
each user.
Top Duration Users –This report ranks the VPN users who remained connected to the network for the longest time. The
report shows the usernames, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the percentage
of
the reported duration by each user.
The chart shows duration in seconds.
Top Throughput Users –This report ranks the VPN users who sent and received data at the highest throughput rate.
The report shows the usernames, the throughput for each user in kbps, and the percentage of reported throughput by
each
user. The throughput is calculated as 8.0 *(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is connected in
seconds*1000.0).
Connection Profile Report –This report provides a count of user, session, and summary of the bandwidth utilization and
throughput usage for each remote access connection profile. The default report contains this information for all devices
for the previous hour. You can customize the report in several different ways.
User Report –This report provides a summary of the bandwidth utilization, connection duration and throughput usage
for each remote access VPN user. The report shows the usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and
received, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the throughput for each user in kbps.
The throughput is throughput is calculated as 8.0*(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is
connected in seconds*1000.0). Beginning with Security Manager 4.7, the User Report provides both user-level details
and session-level details:
User-Level Details –For a particular user, the user-level details represent the combined value of all that user\\’s
sessions: Username, Total no. of Sessions, Bandwidth, Duration, and Throughput. Session-Level Details –Expanding
the tree
displays the session-level details for each session that a particular user has a VPN connection with; the session-level
details encompass the Session ID, Login Time, Logout Time, Bandwidth, Throughput, and Duration of the Session.
(Here
the logout time is calculated by using the formula Logout Time = Login Time + Duration.)

 

QUESTION 9
What are two reasons to implement Cisco IOS MPLS Bandwidth-Assured Layer 2 Services? (Choose two.)
A. guaranteed bandwidth and peak rates as well as low cycle periods, regardless of which systems access the device
B. increased resiliency through MPLS FRR for AToM circuits and better bandwidth utilization through MPLS TE
C. enabled services over an IP/MPLS infrastructure, for enhanced MPLS Layer 2 functionality
D. provided complete proactive protection against frame and device spoofing
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 10
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 11
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which URL matches the regex statement “http”*/”www.cisco.com/”*[^E]”xe”?
A. https://www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
B. https://cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
C. http:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.Exe
D. https:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.EXE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which three configurations tasks do you perform to allow Not Flow on a Cisco ASA G500 Series firewall? (Choose
three)
A. Apply the newly created class map to the global policy.
B. Enable NetFlow Version 9.
C. Create a class map match interesting traffic.
D. Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.
E. Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command.
F. Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction
Correct Answer: ACE

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How To Pass Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Certification Exam

Get the Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Certification Exam. “Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCII)”: https://www.exam.com/300-165.html (Q&As: 294). Free Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam practice test. Improve your skills and exam experience!

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300-165 DCII – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcii.html

The latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Assuming hello PDU authentication has been disabled, which command re-enables the feature on a FabricPath
interface?
A. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type cleartext
B. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type md5
C. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication check
D. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis hello-interval
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
B. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
C. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
D. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
E. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
When implementing Cisco Adapter FEX, which setting on the virtual interface card on the Cisco UCS C-Series Server
must be configured?
A. uplink failover
B. PXE boot
C. network interface virtualization
D. VM-FEX
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario
The following four questions concern the Nexus 7010\\’s which are configured as a vPC pair at the core of a Data
Center network. You can utilize all the available show commands to answer the questions. Access to the running-
configuration is
not allowed.
Instructions
Enter NX-OS commands on 7K-3 and 7K-4 to verify network operation and answer four multiple-choice questions.
THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
Click on the switch to gain access to the console of the switch. No console or enable passwords are required.
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next
button.

exam 300-165 exam question q4 exam 300-165 exam question q4-1

Within the vpc configuration of the 7K\\’s, the command peer-switch is configured.
What is the result of enabling this command?
A. Both vPC peers use the same STP root ID
B. The vPC primary switch (7K-4 in this case) also serves as the STP root to improve vPC convergence
C. The vPC secondary switch (7K-3 in this case) serves as the STP root to improve vPC performance
D. Allows 7K-3 to act as the active HSRP gateway for packets that are addressed to the MAC address of 7K-4
E. Automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP
redirect messages for packets switched through the vPC peer gateway router
F. Enables faster convergence of ARP tables after the vPC peer link flaps
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is implementing a new network design that includes a port channel to connect an MDS
core switch and an NPV switch. Which two Fibre Channel port types must be used to create Fibre Channel port
channel? (Choose two.)exam 300-165 exam question q5

A. N Port
B. NP Port
C. F Port
D. E Port
E. TL Port
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/pc.html

 

QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the VXLAN protocol characteristic from the left onto the benefit it provides on the right.
Select and Place:exam 300-165 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

exam 300-165 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
A Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch suffers a supervisor failure. Which statement is true regarding Cisco NSF
functionality?
A. The line cards are reloaded.
B. The neighbouring routers do not participate in Cisco NSF.
C. The Cisco Express Forwarding cache is pruned.
D. Layer 3 reconvergence does not occur.
E. Cisco NSF can be deployed with RPR+.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?exam 300-165 exam question q8

A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two items are required components of VN-Link in software? (Choose two.)
A. VDC
B. VEM
C. vPC
D. VSM
E. VRRP
Correct Answer: BD
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series consists of two main types of components that can virtually emulate a 66-slot modular
Ethernet switch with redundant supervisor functions:
Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)-data plane: This lightweight software component runs inside the hypervisor. It enables
advanced networking and security features, performs switching between directly attached virtual machines, provides
uplink capabilities to the rest of the network, and effectively replaces the vSwitch. Each hypervisor is embedded with
one VEM.
Virtual supervisor module (VSM)-control plane: This standalone, external, physical or virtual appliance is responsible for
the configuration, management, monitoring, and diagnostics of the overall Cisco Nexus 1000V Series system (that is,
the combination of the VSM itself and all the VEMs it controls) as well as the integration with VMware vCenter. A single
VSM can manage up to 64 VEMs. VSMs can be deployed in an active-standby model, helping ensure high availability.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-525307.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement regarding the implementation of Fibre Channel domain IDs is true?
A. They are assigned on a per-switch basis.
B. They must be unique on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
C. They are assigned on a per-line card basis.
D. They must be the same on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Fibre Channel IDs are dynamically assigned to which objects?
A. Cisco Fabric Services packets
B. WWPNs
C. FSPF packets
D. FEXs
E. VSANs
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 12
Which standard has Cisco used to implement VM-FEX?
A. IEEE 802.1BR
B. IEEE 802.1Qbb
C. IEEE 802.1Qaz
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You configure STP on a switch that is attached to a Cisco FabricPath domain and that has the vPC feature deployed.
How do you configure STP on the switch in the Cisco FabricPath domain on VLAN 10?
A. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 0
B. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 8192 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
C. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 8192
D. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
Correct Answer: B
Note that it is fine to use the spanning-tree priority command and the spanning-tree pseudo-information command
together, but the root priority in the pseudo-information needs to be a lower value (higher priority) than the spanning-tree
priority to make sure that the remaining working Cisco FabricPath switch is sending a superior BPDU with the common
FabricPath bridge ID and the configured spanning-tree pseudo-information priority and remains at the spanning-tree
root. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c07-728188.pdf page 44

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Candidates for this exam are sales professionals who sell licensing solutions to large organizations. Organizations in this category typically have 250 or more devices or users. Candidates should have at least six months of experience selling Microsoft licensing solutions as well as a basic understanding of all Microsoft corporate licensing solutions, including Enterprise Agreement, Enterprise Subscription Agreement, Cloud Solution Provider (CSP), MPSA, OEM, Open and Open Value.

exam 70-705 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each the major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam.

Recommend the appropriate technology solution (60-65%)

  • Evaluate the gap between the current and future technology solution
  • Determine the required products and product licensing rights for the customer’s on-premises solution
  • Determine the required products and product licensing rights for the customer’s Online Services solution
  • Determine the required products and product licensing rights for the customer’s Azure solution

Recommend the Appropriate Software Assurance Benefits (10-15%)

  • Leverage Software Assurance (SA) benefits for customer solutions
  • Assist the customer with SA benefit activation

Recommend a licensing solution (20-25%)

  • Select the appropriate licensing programs
  • Identify product licensing rights

Latest effective Microsoft License Management 70-705 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A customer has an Enterprise Subscription Agreement.
The customer has the following deployed:
Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 Enterprise Edition Microsoft System Center 2012 92 Datacenter Edition Microsoft
System Center 2012 R2 Standard Edition Microsoft Office Professional Plus 2013 Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter
Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Windows 8.1 Pro
The company is evaluating the implementation of Hyper-V and the live migration of virtual machines.
To which product does the License Mobility within Server Farms right apply?
A. Office Professional Plus 2013
B. Exchange Server 2013 Enterprise Edition
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition
D. Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard
Correct Answer: B
Products–like Microsoft SharePoint and Microsoft Exchange–that are identified as eligible for License Mobility within
Server Farms in the Microsoft Product Use Rights (PUR) document will be available for License Mobility. License
Mobility Through Software Assurance

 

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to use Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus, Yammer Enterprise, and Microsoft Teams.
You need to recommend an Office 365 plan that includes the required functionality. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend?
A. Office 365 Enterprise E5
B. Office 365 Enterprise F1
C. Office 365 Enterprise E1
D. Office 365 Enterprise E3
Correct Answer: D
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/office-365-plan-options.aspx

 

QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Only licenses purchased through Volume Licensing agreements allow desktop operating system downgrades.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) and Volume Licensing agreements
C. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) and Full Packaged Product (FPP)
D. Volume Licensing agreements and Full Packaged Product (FPP)
Correct Answer: B
*
Microsoft Volume Licensing agreements include references to specific rights to use any prior versions of Microsoft
licensed software.
*
The OEM License Terms for Windows 8.1 Pro, Windows 8 Pro, Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7 Ultimate,
Windows Vista Business and Windows Vista Ultimate operating systems grant downgrade rights
*
Downgrade rights are not granted under FPP system licenses.

 

QUESTION 4
A customer has various device licenses for Windows 10.
The customer needs to move to user licenses for Windows 10 by purchasing a Windows 10 Enterprise E3 Per User Add-
on (to E3 per device) User Subscription License (USL).
Which license qualities for this Add-on?
A. Windows 10 Pro
B. Windows 10 Enterprise E3
C. Windows 10 Enterprise E5
D. Windows 10 Home
Correct Answer: A
http://www.mirazon.com/windows-10-enterprise-e3-e5-user- based-subscription-for-windows/

 

QUESTION 5
A company named Contoso, Ltd. plans to install Microsoft SQL Server on the physical servers shown in the following
table.exam 70-705 exam question q5

Contoso needs to acquire SQL Server 2016 Enterprise licenses for the servers.
How many licenses should be assigned to each server? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

exam 70-705 exam question q5-1

Correct Answer:

exam 70-705 exam question q5-2

 

QUESTION 6
A customer wants to standardize on the most up-to-date versions of Microsoft Office Professional Plus and Windows 10
Enterprise E3 for all desktops.
You need to recommend the program through which the customer should purchase the licenses at the lowest cost.
Which program should you recommend?
A. Enterprise Agreement (EA)
B. Cloud Solution Provider (CSP)
C. Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
D. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
Correct Answer: A
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/licensing/licensing-programs/enterprise.aspx

 

QUESTION 7
A customer needs to purchase subscriptions to Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E3 for 400 users. Which program should
the customer use?
A. Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
B. Enrollment for Education Solutions (EES)
C. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
D. Enrollment for Application Platform (EAP)
Correct Answer: D
The Enterprise Enrollment is appropriate for your organization if you have more than 250 PCs, devices and/or users and
want to license software and cloud services for your organization for a minimum, three-year period.
During this term, you can get attractive volume pricing for Microsoft core PC and device products, namely Windows 7
Enterprise, Office Professional Plus 2010 and applicable client access licenses, in exchange for your enterprise-wide
licensing commitment.
Incorrect:
not B: EES is for schools.
Not C: The Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE) is a new enrollment under the Microsoft Enterprise Agreement. The
SCE provides a new option for highly committed customers that enables them to standardize broadly on one or more
key
Server and Cloud technologies from Microsoft.

 

QUESTION 8
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A customer plans to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server infrastructure that has the following characteristics:
Two Exchange Server 2013 servers that each have two mailbox databases One thousand users who will have
mailboxes that use Unified Messaging
The customer needs to purchase two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server
Enterprise CALs.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs, and 1,000 Exchange
Server Enterprise CALs
C. Two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs
D. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, one Exchange Server External Connector, and 1,000 Exchange
Server Enterprise CALs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
A company named Contoso, Ltd. wants to standardize the Microsoft Core CAL Suite for all of its users. Contoso
indicates that it has a fluctuating user count due to the seasonality of its business.
You need to recommend a licensing program for Contoso.
What should you recommend?
A. Open Value Subscription
B. Select Plus
C. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
D. Open
Correct Answer: C
SCE offers our lowest Windows Azure pricing, application License Mobility to the cloud, and new benefits for using
System Center to manage Azure resources. Customers also get a new, subscription-based option, offering more
flexibility when retiring workloads, consolidating, or migrating to the cloud.

 

QUESTION 10
A customer has an Enterprise subscription Agreement.
What should the customer submit at the end of the first year of the agreement?
A. a License Verification Form
B. a buy-out order
C. an annual true-up order
D. an annual order
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
The human resources department of a customer needs to help employees become more familiar with Windows 8.
Which Software Assurance (SA) benefit should you recommend?
A. E-Learning
B. 24×7 Problem Resolution Support
C. Training Vouchers
D. Home Use Program
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
A company plans to sign an Enterprise Agreement.
The company has 400 users who will require access to Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) desktops. The VDI desktops
will run Windows 8.1 Enterprise and have Microsoft Office Professional Plus 2013 installed. The VDI desktops will be accessed from 300 client computers and 175 iPads, which are owned by the company.
You need to recommend which licenses for Office the company should purchase. The solution must minimize the initial
cost of the licenses.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:exam 70-705 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

exam 70-705 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Purchasing Accounts in a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) is used to define the purchasing
entities across an organization. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise,
select No.
Hot Area:exam 70-705 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

exam 70-705 exam question q13-1

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-417: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-417.aspx

This exam is intended for IT professionals who want to validate the skills and knowledge necessary to implement the Windows Server 2012
core infrastructure services. Candidates have already earned a qualifying Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2000,
or Windows XP certification

exam 70-417 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. This exam has been updated to cover the recent technology updates in Windows Server 2012 R2 and System Center 2012 R2. For more details,
you may review the documents on the exam detail pages for exams 70-410, 70-411, and 70-412.

Exam 70-410

  • Install and configure servers
  • Configure server roles and features
  • Configure Hyper-V
  • Install and administer Active Directory

Exam 70-411

  • Deploy, manage, and maintain servers
  • Configure network services and access
  • Configure a network policy server infrastructure
  • Configure and manage Active Directory
  • Configure and manage Group Policy

Exam 70-412

  • Configure and manage high availability
  • Configure file and storage solutions
  • Implement business continuity and disaster recovery
  • Configure network services
  • Configure access and information protection solutions

Latest effective Microsoft Windows Server 2012 70-417 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs on a host named Host1.
You configure VM1 to replicate to another host named Host2. Host2 is located in the same physical location as Host1.
You need to add an additional replica of VM1. The replica will be located on a different physical site.
What should you do?
A. From VM1 on Host2, click Extend Replication.
B. On Host1, configure the Hyper-V settings.
C. From VM1 on Host1, click Extend Replication.
D. On Host2, configure the Hyper-V settings.
Correct Answer: A
Once that is done, go to replica site and from Hyper-V UI manager select the VM for which you want to extend the
replication. Right, click on VM and select “Replication->Extend Replication …”. This will open Extend Replication
Wizard which is similar to Enable Replication Wizard. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn551365.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134240.aspx NOTE: You configure a server to receive replication with Hyper-
V Manager, in this situation the replica site is assumed to be the Replica Server. Therefore, you extend replication from
VM1 on Host2.
References: http://blogs.technet.com/b/virtualization/archive/2013/12/10/hyper-v-replica-extend-replication.aspx

 

QUESTION 2
Your role of Network Administrator at ABC.com includes the management of the Active Directory Domain Services (AD
DS) domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2012.
You create a second domain named Dev.ABC.com. The new domain contains a domain controller named ABC-
DevDC1. The Dev.ABC.com domain will be used to test domain configurations before applying them to the corporate
domain. You discover that the Default Domain Controllers Policy on ABC-DevDC1 has become corrupted. You do not
have a backup of the Default Domain Controllers Policy.
How can you recreate the Default Domain Controllers Policy without affecting the Default Domain Policy?
A. By running the DCDiag /fix command.
B. By running the DCPromo /adv command.
C. By running the DCGPOFix /target: domain command.
D. By running the DCGPOFix /target: dc command.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1).
Both servers are member servers.
On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server
Manager.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager.
Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemoting cmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.PSL script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfiguration cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
Correct Answer: BD
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell
On the computer that you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the following, and then press Enter.
Set-ExecutionPolicy –ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D)
Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall rule exceptions.
Configure-SMRemoting.ps1 -force –enable (B)
References: https://msandbu.wordpress.com/2012/08/26/administer-other-windows-server-from-server-manager-2012/

 

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named
Server1. Server1 has the Web Server (IIS) server role installed. On Server1, you install a managed service account
named Service1. You attempt to configure the World Wide Web Publishing Service as shown in the exhibit.exam 70-417 exam question q4

You receive the following error message:
“The account name is invalid or does not exist, or the password is invalid for the account name specified.”
You need to ensure that the World Wide Web Publishing Service can log on by using the managed service account.
What should you do?
A. Specify contoso\service1$ as the account name.
B. Specify [email protected] as the account name.
C. Reset the password for the account.
D. Enter and confirm the password for the account.
Correct Answer: A
A managed service account is designed for service applications such as Internet Information Services, SQL Server, or
Exchange to provide the following: Automatic password management, so that these services can be separated from
other services on the computer better.
Simplified SPN management Service Principal Name (SPN) that Allows service administrators to set SPNs on these
accounts.
In addition, SPN management can be delegated to other administrators.
Managed service accounts are created using PowerShell cmdlets and managed. The accounts are identified by a dollar
sign at the end of the login name. After the login name is correct, the settings are applied and the account will have the right to log on as a service given.
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askds/2009/09/10/managed-service-accounts-understanding-implementing-best-practices-and-troubleshooting/

 

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The
domain contains a server named Server1.
You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1.
You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by using the Windows
PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install PswaWebApplication
B. Add PswaAuthorizationRule
C. Set-WSManlnstance
D. Set-WSManQuickConfig
E. Set-BCAuthentication
Correct Answer: AB
Configure PowerShell Web Access Gateway using the following PowerShell Cmdlet.
Install-PswaWebApplication?seTestCertificate
Running the cmdlet installs the Windows PowerShell Web Access web application within the IIS Default Web Site
container. The cmdlet creates the infrastructure required to run Windows PowerShell Web Access on the default
website,
https:///pswa.
Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
Adds a new authorization rule to the Windows PowerShell Web Access authorization rule set.
Parameters:
ComputerGroupName
ComputerName
ConfigurationName
RuleName UserGroupName UserName Credential (Windows Server 2012 R2 and later)
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh849867.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/hh849875.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj592890(v=wps.620).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh848404(v=wps.620).aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/jj592894(v=wps.620).aspx

 

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to enable Hyper-V Network Virtualization on Server1.
You need to install the Windows Network Virtualization Filter Driver on Server1.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetVirtualizationGlobal
B. Enable-NetAdapterBinding
C. Add – WindowsFeature
D. Set-NetAdapterVmq
Correct Answer: B
Hyper-V Network Virtualization runs multiple virtual networks on a physical network. And each virtual network operates
as if it is running as a physical network. The Set-NetAdaptercmdlet sets the basic properties of a network adapter
such as virtual LAN (VLAN) identifier (ID) and MAC address. Thus if you add the binding parameter to the command
then you will be able to install the Windows Network Virtualization Filter Driver. Step one: Enable Windows Network
Virtualization (WNV). This is a binding that is applied to the NIC that you External Virtual Switch is bound to. This can be
a physical NIC, it can be an LBFO NIC team. Either way, it is the network adapter that your External Virtual Switch uses
to exit the server. This also means that if you have multiple virtual networks or multiple interfaces that you can pick and
choose and it is not some global setting. If you have one External Virtual Switch this is fairly easy: $vSwitch = Get-
VMSwitch -SwitchType External# Check if Network Virtualization is bound# This could be done by checking for the
binding and seeing if it is enabled for each-Object -InputObject $vSwitch {if ((Get-NetAdapterBinding-ComponentID
“ms_netwnv” -InterfaceDescription $_.NetAdapterInterfaceDescription).Enabled -eq $false){# Lets enable enable-
NetAdapterBinding-InterfaceDescription $_.NetAdapterInterfaceDescription -ComponentID “ms_netwnv”}}

 

QUESTION 7
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network contains a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD
DS) domain named ABC.com. The network includes servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1)
and Windows Server 2012. All servers in the network have Windows Remote Management (WinRM) enabled. You use
a Windows 7 Enterprise client computer named ABC-Admin1. You are currently logged in to ABC-Admin1. From your client computer, you want to obtain the IP address of a Windows Server 2012 member server named ABC-File1.
Which command or commands should you use?
A. Telnet ABC-File1 ipconfig.
B. NSLookup > Server ABC-File1 > ipconfig
C. WinRM -r:ABC-File1 ipconfig
D. WinRS -r:ABC-File1 ipconfig
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Your role of Network Administrator at ABC.com includes the management of the Active Directory Domain Services (AD
DS) domain named ABC.com. The network includes servers that run Windows Server 2012.
The network includes a Windows Server 2012 server named ABC-AppSrv1. ABC-AppSrv1 runs a custom line-of-
business (LOB) application used by all company users. You create a Data Collector Set (DCS) to monitor performance
counters for ABC-AppSrv1.
You need to ensure that when the size of the folder containing the performance log data reaches 500MB, previous data
is deleted.
How can you meet this requirement?
A. By configuring a quota on the folder in File Server Resource Manager (FSRM).
B. By configuring a file screen on the folder in File Server Resource Manager (FSRM).
C. By configuring the Maximum root path size setting in the Data Manager settings of the Data Collector Set.
D. By configuring the Maximum folders size setting in the Data Manager settings of the Data Collector Set.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Complete the missing word from the sentence below that is describing one of the new roles in Server 2012:
By using _________, you can augment an organization\\’s security strategy by protecting information through persistent
usage policies, which remain with the information, no matter where it is moved.
A. ADFS
B. RODC
C. ADLDS
D. AD RMS
Correct Answer: D
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee221010(v=ws.10).aspx

 

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services
(AD RMS) on a server named Server1. After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights
Management
Services server role was removed.
You attempt to deploy AD RMS. During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an
existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found.
You need to ensure that clients will only attempt to establish connections to the new AD RMS deployment.
Which should you do?
A. From DNS, remove the records for Server1.
B. From DNS, increase the priority of the DNS records for the new deployment of AD RMS.
C. From Active Directory, remove the computer object for Server1.
D. From Active Directory, remove the SCP.
Correct Answer: D
The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) Service Connection Point (SCP) is an object in Active
The directory that holds the web address of the AD RMS certification cluster. AD RMS-enabled applications use the SCP to discover the AD RMS service; it is the first connection point for users to discover the AD RMS web services.
Only one SCP can exist in your Active Directory forest. If you try to install AD RMS and an SCP already exists in your
forest from a previous AD RMS installation that was not properly deprovisioned, the new SCP will not install properly. It must be removed before you can establish the new SCP.
References:
http://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/710.the-ad-rms-service-connection-point.aspx

 

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8 Pro. You
have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1. GP1 is linked to the domain. GP1 contains the Windows Internet
Explorer 10 and 11 Internet Settings.
The settings are shown in the exhibit.exam 70-417 exam question q11

Users report that when they open Windows Internet Explorer, the home page is NOT set to HTTP:// www.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the home page is set to http://www.contoso.com the next time users log on to the domain.
What should you do?
A. On each client computer, run gpupdate.exe.
B. Open the Internet Explorer 10 and 11 Internet Settings, and then press F5.
C. Open the Internet Explorer 10 and 11 Internet Settings, and then modify the Tabs settings.
D. On each client computer, run Invoke-GPupdate.
Correct Answer: B
The Section Home on the tab General is marked with a red dashed line.
This indicates that the setting has the status of “not configured”.
If you press while the dialog box is open, the F5 key is changing the red dotted line in a solid green line, which
“activates” corresponds to the policy status.
Configure the following key combinations the status of the settings of the current tab:
F5-All settings activated (green)
F6-A setting is enabled (green)
F7-A setting is not configured (red)
F8 -All settings are not activated (red)
References: https://4sysops.com/archives/internet-explorer-10-administration-part-3-group-policy-preferences/

 

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
A Microsoft Azure Backup of Server1 is created automatically every day.
You need to view the items that are included in the backup.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-WBSummary
B. Get-OBPolicy
C. Get-OBJob
D. Get-WBJob
Correct Answer: B
The Get-OBPolicy cmdlet gets the current backup policy that is set for the server, including the details about scheduling
backups, files included in the backup, and retention policy Incorrect Answers:
A: The Get-WBSummary cmdlet gets the history of the backup operations performed. Information returned includes
when the next backup is scheduled for, details for the last backup, and details of the last successful backup.
C: The Get-OBJob cmdlet gets a list of operations from a server as OBJob[] objects.
D: The Get-WBJob cmdlet gets the currently running or previous backup operation (WBJob object). References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh770406(v=wps.630).aspx

 

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a new server named Server1 and you join Server1 to the domain.
You need to ensure that you can view processor usage and memory usage information in the Server Manager.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, click Configure Performance Alerts.
B. From Performance Monitor, create a Data Collector Set (DCS).
C. From Performance Monitor, start the System Performance Data Collector Set (DCS).
D. From Server Manager, click Start Performance Counters.
Correct Answer: D
You should navigate to the Server Manager snap-in and there click on All Servers, and then Performance Counters. The
Performance Counters, when started can be set to collect and display data regarding processor usage, memory usage,
amongst many other resources like disk-related and security-related data, that can be monitored.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb734903.aspx

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The latest CompTIA CASP CAS-003 exam Practice Questions and Answers

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While cybersecurity managers help identify what cybersecurity policies and frameworks could be implemented, CASP+ certified professionals figure out how to implement solutions within those policies and frameworks.

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Latest effective CompTIA CASP CAS-003 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
After multiple service interruptions caused by an older datacenter design, a company decided to migrate away from its
datacenter. The company has successfully completed the migration of all datacenter servers and services to a cloud
provider. The migration project includes the following phases: Selection of a cloud provider Architectural design
Microservice segmentation Virtual private cloud Geographic service redundancy Service migration The Chief
Information Security Officer (CISO) is still concerned with the availability requirements of critical company applications.
Which of the following should the company implement NEXT?
A. Multicloud solution
B. Single-tenancy private cloud
C. Hybrid cloud solution
D. Cloud access security broker
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
An ISP is peering with a new provider and wishes to disclose which autonomous system numbers should be allowed
through BGP for network transport. Which of the following should contain this information?
A. Memorandum of Understanding
B. Interconnection Security Agreement
C. Operating Level Agreement
D. Service Level Agreement
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
The network administrator has been tracking the cause of network performance problems and decides to take a look at
the internal and external router stats.

exam cas-003 exam question q3

Which of the following should the network administrator do to resolve the performance issue after analyzing the above
information?
A. The IP TOS field of business related network traffic should be modified accordingly.
B. The TCP flags of business related traffic should be modified accordingly.
C. An ACL should be placed on the external router to drop incoming ICMP packets.
D. An ACL should be placed on the internal router to drop layer 4 packets to and from port 0.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Joe is a security architect who is tasked with choosing a new NIPS platform that has the ability to perform SSL
inspection, analyze up to 10Gbps of traffic, can be centrally managed and only reveals inspected application payload
data to specified internal security employees. Which of the following steps should Joe take to reach the desired
outcome?
A. Research new technology vendors to look for potential products. Contribute to an RFP and then evaluate RFP
responses to ensure that the vendor product meets all mandatory requirements. Test the product and make a product
recommendation.
B. Evaluate relevant RFC and ISO standards to choose an appropriate vendor product. Research industry surveys,
interview existing customers of the product and then recommend that the product be purchased.
C. Consider outsourcing the product evaluation and ongoing management to an outsourced provider on the basis that
each of the requirements are met and a lower total cost of ownership (TCO) is achieved.
D. Choose a popular NIPS product and then consider outsourcing the ongoing device management to a cloud provider.
Give access to internal security employees so that they can inspect the application payload data.
E. Ensure that the NIPS platform can also deal with recent technological advancements, such as threats emerging from
social media, BYOD and cloud storage prior to purchasing the product.
Correct Answer: A
A request for a Proposal (RFP) is in essence an invitation that you present to vendors asking them to submit proposals
on a specific commodity or service. This should be evaluated, then the product should be tested and then a product
recommendation can be made to achieve the desired outcome.


QUESTION 5
Company ABC is hiring customer service representatives from Company XYZ. The representatives reside at Company
XYZ\\’s headquarters. Which of the following BEST prevents Company XYZ representatives from gaining access to
unauthorized Company ABC systems?
A. Require each Company XYZ employee to use an IPSec connection to the required systems
B. Require Company XYZ employees to establish an encrypted VDI session to the required systems
C. Require Company ABC employees to use two-factor authentication on the required systems
D. Require a site-to-site VPN for intercompany communications
Correct Answer: B
VDI stands for Virtual Desktop Infrastructure. Virtual desktop infrastructure is the practice of hosting a desktop operating
system within a virtual machine (VM) running on a centralized server.
Company ABC can configure virtual desktops with the required restrictions and required access to systems that the
users in company XYZ require. The users in company XYZ can then log in to the virtual desktops over a secure
encrypted connection and then access authorized systems only.


QUESTION 6
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The developer is focusing
on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the
code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?
A. Client side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D
Regular expression matching is a technique for reading and validating input, particularly in web software. This question
is asking about securing input fields where customers enter their credit card details. In this case, the expected input into
the credit card number field would be a sequence of numbers of a certain length. We can use regular expression
matching to verify that the input is indeed a sequence of numbers. Anything that is not a sequence of numbers could be
malicious code.


QUESTION 7
After being notified of an issue with the online shopping cart, where customers are able to arbitrarily change the price of
listed items, a programmer analyzes the following piece of code used by a web based shopping cart.
SELECT ITEM FROM CART WHERE ITEM=ADDSLASHES($USERINPUT);
The programmer found that every time a user adds an item to the cart, a temporary file is created on the web server
/tmp directory. The temporary file has a name which is generated by concatenating the content of the $USERINPUT
variable
and a timestamp in the form of MM-DD-YYYY, (e.g. smartphone-12-25-2013.tmp) containing the price of the item being
purchased. Which of the following is MOST likely being exploited to manipulate the price of a shopping cart\\’s items?
A. Input validation
B. SQL injection
C. TOCTOU
D. Session hijacking
Correct Answer: C
In this question, TOCTOU is being exploited to allow the user to modify the temp file that contains the price of the item.
In software development, time of check to time of use (TOCTOU) is a class of software bug caused by changes in a
system between the checking of a condition (such as a security credential) and the use of the results of that check. This
is one example of a race condition.
A simple example is as follows: Consider a Web application that allows a user to edit pages, and also allows
administrators to lock pages to prevent editing. A user requests to edit a page, getting a form which can be used to alter
its content. Before the user submits the form, an administrator locks the page, which should prevent editing. However,
since editing has already begun, when the user submits the form, those edits (which have already been made) are
accepted. When the user began editing, the appropriate authorization was checked, and the user was indeed allowed to
edit. However, the authorization was used later, at a time when edits should no longer have been allowed.
TOCTOU race conditions are most common in Unix between operations on the file system, but can occur in other
contexts, including local sockets and improper use of database transactions.


QUESTION 8
A user is suspected of engaging in potentially illegal activities. Law enforcement has requested that the user continue to
operate on the network as normal. However, they would like to have a copy of any communications from the user
involving certain key terms. Additionally, the law enforcement agency has requested that the user\\’s ongoing
communication be retained in the user\\’s account for future investigations. Which of the following will BEST meet the
goals of law enforcement?
A. Begin a chain-of-custody on for the user\\’s communication. Next, place a legal hold on the user\\’s email account.
B. Perform an e-discover using the applicable search terms. Next, back up the user\\’s email for a future investigation.
C. Place a legal hold on the user\\’s email account. Next, perform e-discovery searches to collect applicable emails.
D. Perform a back up of the user\\’s email account. Next, export the applicable emails that match the search terms.
Correct Answer: C
A legal hold is a process that an organization uses to maintain all forms of pertinent information when legal action is
reasonably expected. E-discovery refers to discovery in litigation or government investigations that manages the
exchange of electronically stored information (ESI). ESI includes email and office documents, photos, video, databases,
and other filetypes.


QUESTION 9
A software development team is conducting functional and user acceptance testing of internally developed web
applications using a COTS solution. For automated testing, the solution uses valid user credentials from the enterprise
directory to authenticate to each application. The solution stores the username in plain text and the corresponding
password as an encoded string in a script within a file, located on a globally accessible network share. The account
credentials used belong to the development team lead. To reduce the risks associated with this scenario while
minimizing disruption to ongoing testing, which of the following are the BEST actions to take? (Choose two.)
A. Restrict access to the network share by adding a group only for developers to the share\\’s ACL
B. Implement a new COTS solution that does not use hard-coded credentials and integrates with directory services
C. Obfuscate the username within the script file with encoding to prevent easy identification and the account used
D. Provision a new user account within the enterprise directory and enable its use for authentication to the target
applications. Share the username and password with all developers for use in their individual scripts
E. Redesign the web applications to accept single-use, local account credentials for authentication
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
An organization recently upgraded its wireless infrastructure to support WPA2 and requires all clients to use this
method. After the upgrade, several critical wireless clients fail to connect because they are only WEP compliant. For the
foreseeable future, none of the affected clients have an upgrade path to put them into compliance with the WPA2
requirement. Which of the following provides the MOST secure method of integrating the non-compliant clients into the
network?
A. Create a separate SSID and WEP key to support the legacy clients and enable detection of rogue APs.
B. Create a separate SSID and WEP key on a new network segment and only allow required communication paths.
C. Create a separate SSID and require the legacy clients to connect to the wireless network using certificate-based
802.1x.
D. Create a separate SSID and require the use of dynamic WEP keys.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
An engineer maintains a corporate-owned mobility infrastructure, and the organization requires that all web browsing
using corporate-owned resources be monitored. Which of the following would allow the organization to meet its
requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Exempt mobile devices from the requirement, as this will lead to privacy violations
B. Configure the devices to use an always-on IPSec VPN
C. Configure all management traffic to be tunneled into the enterprise via TLS
D. Implement a VDI solution and deploy supporting client apps to devices
E. Restrict application permissions to establish only HTTPS connections outside of the enterprise boundary
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 12
A security controls assessor intends to perform a holistic configuration compliance test of networked assets. The
assessor has been handed a package of definitions provided in XML format, and many of the files have two common
tags within them: “” and “”. Which of the following tools BEST supports the use of these definitions?
A. HTTP interceptor
B. Static code analyzer
C. SCAP scanner
D. XML fuzzer
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
There have been several exploits to critical devices within the network. However, there is currently no process to
perform vulnerability analysis. Which the following should the security analyst implement during production hours to
identify critical threats and vulnerabilities?
A. asset inventory of all critical devices
B. Vulnerability scanning frequency that does not interrupt workflow
C. Daily automated reports of exploited devices
D. Scanning of all types of data regardless of sensitivity levels
Correct Answer: B

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The command line interface
Scripting basics
Network settings and services
System security

exam offers the latest CompTIA Linux+ lx0-101 practice test free of charge (40Q&As)

QUESTION 1
An administrator is planning a partition scheme for a new Linux installation. Which of the following
directories should the administrator consider for separate partitions? (Select THREE).
A. /etc
B. /home
C. /var
D. /lib
E. /tmp
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the difference between the –remove and the –purge action with the dpkg
command?
A. –remove removes the program, –purge also removes the config files.
B. –remove only removes the program, –purge only removes the config files.
C. –remove removes a package, –purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. –remove removes only the package file itself, –purge removes all files related to the package.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the process ID number of the init program?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. It is different with each reboot.
E. It is set to the current run level.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Pressing the Ctrl-C combination on the keyboard while a command is executing in the foreground sends
which of following signal codes?
A. 1 (SIGHUP)
B. 2 (SIGINT)
C. 3 (SIGQUIT)
D. 9 (SIGKILL)
E. 15 (SIGTERM)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to
tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program’s shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator’s
fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive
to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the
process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of
program apache2?
Correct Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-
SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALLSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

QUESTION 9
All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie “s/1/2/” /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16 lines
following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
The system configuration file named is commonly used to set the default runlevel. (Please
provide the fill name with full path information).
Correct Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

QUESTION 12
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to
searching a particular number of subdirectories?
A. –max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search for
foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH?
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /ETC/YUM.REPOS.D,/ETC/YUM.REPOS.D/,YUM.REPOS.D,YUM.REPOS.D/

QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands will allow an administrator to adjust the number of mounts after which anexisting filesystem will be checked by e2fsck?
A. debugfs
B. dumpe2fs
C. mode2fs
D. tune2fs
E. mke2fs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following Linux filesy stems pre-allocates a fixed number of in odes at filesy stems? make/
creation time, and does NOT generate them as needed?
A. ext3
B. jfs
C. reiserfs
D. xfs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An administrator has sent their current vi process with a PID of 1423 to the background on the command
line. Assuming no other processes are in the background, what single command with no options or
parameters will bring the vi process to the foreground?
Correct Answer: %1,FG

QUESTION 21
Which of the following commands will send output from the program myapp to both standard output
(stdout) and the file file1.log?
A. cat < myapp | cat > file1.log
B. myapp 0>&1 | cat > file1.log
C. myapp | cat > file1.log
D. myapp | tee file1.log
E. tee myapp file1.log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the
process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123D. kill -17 123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is the purpose of the Bash built-in export command?
A. To allow disks to be mounted remotely.
B. To run a command as a process in a sub-shell.
C. To make the command history available to sub-shells.
D. To setup environment variables for applications.
E. To share NFS partitions for use by other systems on the network.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An administrator is having some trouble with a disk partition and needs to do maintenance on this partition.
The administrator’s users home directories are on it and several are logged in. Which of the following
commands would disconnect the users and allow the administrator to safely execute maintenance tasks?
A. telinit 1
B. shutdown -r now
C. killall -9 inetd
D. /bin/netstop –maint
E. /etc/rc.d/init.d/network stop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Bob accidentally created the subdirectory \bobsdir in his home directory. He tried to remove the
subdirectory with the command rmdir \bobsfile only to receive the error, “No such file or directory.” . Which
of the following commands will remove the directory?
A. rmdir ‘~bob/\bobsdir’
B. rmdir “~bob/\bobsdir”
C. rmdir ~bob/’bobsdir’
D. rmdir ~bob/\bobsdir
E. rmdir ~bob/\\bobsdir
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which of the following commands will print the inode usage on each mounted filesystem?
A. du -i
B. df -i
C. lsfs -i
D. printfs -i
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following commands will uninstall a package but leave its configuration files in case a
package is re-installed?
A. None, no command will do this.
B. dpkg -s pkgnameC. dpkg -L pkgname
D. dpkg -P pkgname
E. dpkg -r pkgname
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 28
How does an administrator get a list of files that have been installed from a dpkg package?
A. dpkg -l pkgname
B. dpkg -C pkgname
C. dpkg -s pkgname
D. dpkg -S pkgname
E. dpkg -L pkgname
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Which of the following command line redirection characters instructs the shell to read from the current
input source until a specific word, on a separate line and without and trailing spaces, is reached?
A. <<
B. <|
C. !<
D. &<<
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
An administrator has downloaded an image file of a boot floppy disk to a hard drive. What is the BEST
utility to create a boot floppy from the disk image? (Specify a single command without options.)
Correct Answer: /BIN/DD,DD

QUESTION 31
In bash, inserting 1>&2 after a command redirects:
A. standard error to standard input.
B. standard input to standard error.
C. standard output to standard error.
D. standard error to standard output.
E. standard output to standard input.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
In the vi editor, what vi command will copy (but not paste) from the current line at the cursor and thefollowing 16 lines (17 lines total)? Enter the correct vi command without spaces. (Please enter only a
single answer.)
Correct Answer: 17Y,17Y,17YY,17YY

QUESTION 34
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of
program apache2?
Correct Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-
SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALLSIGUSR1APACHE2, KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

QUESTION 35
Select the line that BEST represents what permissions the /etc/passwd file should have.
A. -rw——- 1 root root 531 Jun 5 22:45 /etc/passwd
B. -rw-r–r– 1 root root 531 Jun 5 22:45 /etc/passwd
C. -rw-r–r– 1 1 1 531 Jun 5 22:45 /etc/passwd
D. All answers listed are not correct.
E. All answers listed are correct.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which is the difference between the –remove and the –purge action with the dpkg command?
A. –remove only removes the program, –purge only removes the config files.
B. –remove removes the program, –purge also removes the config files.
C. –remove removes a package, –purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. –remove removes only the package file itself, –purge removes all files related to the package.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which is the default process priority when a process is started using the nice command?
A. 0
B. -10
C. -20
D. 10
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which is the default process priority when a process is started using the nice command?
A. 16d
B. 17x
C. 17dd
D. d17d
E. 16dd
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to searching a
particular number of subdirectories?A.-s
B. -dirmax
C. –max-dirs
D. -maxdepth
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Which commands will print to standard out only the lines that do not begin with # (pound symbol) in the file
foobar?
A. /bin/grep ^# foobar
B. /bin/grep #$ foobar
C. /bin/grep -v ^# foobar
D. /bin/grep -v #$ foobar
Correct Answer: C

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Linux+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications:
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About the lx0-102 exam:

Unlike vendor-specific certifications, CompTIA Linux+ covers multiple distributions, validating skills that help prevent platform lock-in and that promote more flexible approaches to Linux system troubleshooting.

After passing the two exams required for certification, candidates will have mastered the following concepts:

System configuration
The command line interface
Scripting basics
Network settings and services
System security

exam offers the latest CompTIA Linux+ lx0-102 practice test free of charge (40Q&As)

QUESTION 1
The legacy program for sending files to the printer queues from the command line is which of the
following?
A. lpd
B. lpr
C. lpq
D. lpp
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements would create a default route using a gateway of 192.168.1.1?
A. netstat -add default gw
B. route default 192.168.1.1
C. ip route default 192.168.1.1
D. route add default gw 192.168.1.1
E. ifconfig default gw 192.168.1.1 eth0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the purpose of the dig command?
A. To adjust a directory’s hidden permissions
B. To search for files on the filesystem
C. To adjust a file’s hidden permissions
D. To perform hostname lookups
E. To ping all known hosts on the current subnet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following configuration files does sudo read when determining if a user is permitted to run
applications with root privileges?
A. /etc/groups
B. /etc/passwd
C. /etc/sudoers
D. /etc/sudo.conf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands will set the local machine’s timezone to UTC?
A. cat UTC > /etc/timezone
B. ln -s /usr/share/zoneinfo/UTC /etc/localtime
C. date –timezone=UTC
D. mv /usr/timezone/UTC /etc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following commands should be added to /etc/bash_profile to change the language ofmessages from an internationalised program to Portuguese (pt)? (Select TWO).
A. export LANGUAGE=”pt”
B. export MESSAGE=”pt”
C. export LANG=”pt”
D. export LC_MESSAGES=”pt”
E. export ALL_MESSAGES=”pt”
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is pool.ntp.org?
A. A deprecated feature for maintaining system time in the Linux kernel.
B. A website which provides binary and source packages for the OpenNTPD project.
C. A virtual cluster of various timeservers.
D. A community website used to discuss the localization of Linux.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following directories in a user’s home contains configuration files and key rings for GPG?
A. ~/gpg.d/
B. ~/.gpg/
C. ~/.gnupg/
D. ~/gnupg/
E. ~/.gpg.d/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following lines from /etc/X11/xorg.conf indicates that fonts can be found on a font server?
A. FontPath= server
B. Fonts “unix/:7100”
C. FontPath “unix/:7100”
D. Fonts= server
E. Fontserver = “servername”
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The files in the /etc/skel directory are used by the:
A. pwconv command
B. pwunconv command
C. useradd command
D. passwd command
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following SQL statements will select the fields name and address from the contacts table?
A. SELECT (name, address) FROM contacts;
B. SELECT (name address) FROM contacts;C. SELECT name, address FROM contacts;
D. SELECT name address FROM contacts;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following configuration files would an administrator edit to change default options for
outbound ssh sessions?
A. /etc/ssh/sshd_config
B. /etc/ssh/ssh
C. /etc/ssh/client
D. /etc/ssh/ssh_config
E. /etc/ssh/ssh_client
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following bash option will prevent an administrator from overwriting a file with a “>”?
A. set -o safe
B. set -o noglob
C. set -o noclobber
D. set -o append
E. set -o nooverwrite
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
All of the following are Mail Transport Agents EXCEPT:
A. exim
B. postfix
C. sendmail
D. qmail
E. mail
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access
control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
In the following command and its output, echo $$ 12942 which of the following is 12942?
A. The process ID of the echo command.
B. The process ID of the current shell.
C. The process ID of the last command executed.D. The process ID of the last backgrounded command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands will print the exit value of the previous command to the screen in bash?
A. echo $?
B. echo $#
C. echo $exit
D. echo $status
E. echo $&}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which of the following statements about crontab are true? (Select TWO).
A. Every user may have their owncrontab.
B. Changing a crontab requires a reload/restart of the cron daemon.
C. The cron daemon reloads crontab files automatically when necessary.
D. hourly is the same as “0 * * * *”.
E. A cron daemon must run for each existing crontab.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which of the following commands is used to deactivate a network interface?
A. ifdown
B. ipdown
C. net
D. netdown
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following looks like a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomainlocalhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhostlocalhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomainlocalhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
An administrator needs to sync the hardware clock with their system clock. In order to accomplish this,
complete the following command:
________ -u –systohc
Correct Answer: /usr/sbin/hwclock

QUESTION 22
What command is used to print a listing of email that is currently being managed by the MTA but has not
yet been delivered? (Please specify the command with or without path)Correct Answer: /usr/bin/mailq

QUESTION 23
Please specify the top directory containing the configuration files for the CUPS printing system. (Provide
the full path to the directory)
Correct Answer: /etc/cups

QUESTION 24
What is the assigned port number for the HTTP service? (Provide the number with digits and not as a
word)
Correct Answer: 80

QUESTION 25
An executive’s ISP has given an IP block for their use. The block is 192.168.112.64/29. If the network
administrator uses the first usable IP for the router that is installed on the executive’s network, how many
usable IPs are left? (Please enter the number and not a word)
Correct Answer: 5

QUESTION 26
An administrator can run the ________ command to see active network and UNIX domain socket
connections as well as other open files. (Please specify the command with no path information, options or
parameters)
Correct Answer: /usr/bin/lsof

QUESTION 27
The xinetd service will be used instead of inetd. In order to create a similar configuration as inetd, what
main file must be created or edited for xinetd? (Please specify the full path)
Correct Answer: /etc/xinetd.conf

QUESTION 28
By default, the contents of which directory will be copied to a new user’s home directory when the account
is created by passing the -m option to the useradd command? (Please provide the full path)
Correct Answer: Answer: /etc/skel, /etc/skel/
Correct Answer: /etc/skel/

QUESTION 29
What word is missing from the following SQL statement? __________ count(*) from tablename;
Correct Answer: SELECT

QUESTION 30
What is the name of the simple graphical login manager that comes with a vanilla X11 installation?
(Provide only the name of the program without any path information)
Correct Answer: xdm

QUESTION 31
What command will display the group names and GIDs to which a user belongs? (Provide only the
command name with or without path information)
Correct Answer: /usr/bin/id

QUESTION 32
An ISP has given an executive an IP block for their use. The block is 192.168.112.64/27. If the network
administrator uses the first usable IP for the router that is installed on the executive’s network, how many
usable IPs are left? (Please enter the number and not a word)
Correct Answer: 29

QUESTION 33
After configuring printing on a Linux server, the administrator sends a test file to one of the printers and it
fails to print. What command can be used to print the status of the printer’s queue? (Provide only the
command, without any options or parameters)
Correct Answer: /usr/bin/lpq

QUESTION 34
The _________ command is used to assign an IP address to a device. (Please specify the command with
or without path information)
Correct Answer: /sbin/ifconfig

QUESTION 35
The _____________ command is used to send ICMP ECHO_REQUEST datagrams to a single host or
gateway. (Provide only the command name with or without path information)
Correct Answer: /bin/ping

QUESTION 36
When searching for files owned by the root user, which option is required in the following command line:
find . ________ 0 -print
(Provide only the missing argument)
Correct Answer: -uid

QUESTION 37
Which file contains a set of services and permitted hosts that will be allowed to connect to the server by
going through a TCP Wrapper program such as tcpd? (Please enter the full path)
Correct Answer: /etc/hosts.allow

QUESTION 38
What command can be used to generate syslog entries of any facility and priority? (supply just the
command name without a path).
Correct Answer: logger

QUESTION 39
The system’s timezone may be set by linking /etc/localtime to an appropriate file in which directory?
(Provide the full path to the directory, without any country information).
Correct Answer: /usr/share/zoneinfo/

QUESTION 40
With IPv6, how many bits have been used for the host identifier portion of an address? (Please enter the
number and not a word)
Correct Answer: 64

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QUESTION 1
Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?
A. The bootloader
B. The inetd program
C. The init program
D. The kernel
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using SysV init? (Choose TWO
correct answers.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Boot device order
B. Linux kernel version
C. Timezone
D. Hardware configuration
E. The system’s hostname
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. shutdown -r now
B. shutdown -r “rebooting”
C. telinit 6
D. telinit 0
E. shutdown -k now “rebooting”
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. startd
B. systemd
C. Upstart
D. SysInit
E. SysV init
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 9
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct
answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings
B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is safe to
perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -R 1 now
B. shutdown -single now
C. init 1
D. telinit 1
E. runlevel 1
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?
A. /lib/init.so
B. /sbin/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /proc/sys/kernel/init
E. /boot/init
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following commands will write a message to the terminals of all logged in users?
A. bcast
B. mesg
C. print
D. wall
E. yell
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following options for the kernel’s command line changes the systemd boot target to
rescue.target instead of the default target?
A. systemd.target=rescue.target
B. systemd.runlevel=rescue.target
C. systemd.service=rescue.target
D. systemd.default=rescue.target
E. systemd.unit=rescue.target
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
After modifying GNU GRUB’s configuration file, which command must be run for the changes to take
effect?
A. kill -HUP $(pidof grub)
B. grub-install
C. grub
D. No action is required
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based
package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of a given dpkg package?
A. apt-cache depends-on package
B. apt-cache dependencies package
C. apt-cache depends package
D. apt-cache requires package
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following options is used in a GRUB Legacy configuration file to define the amount of time
that the GRUB menu will be shown to the user?
A. hidemenu
B. splash
C. timeout
D. showmenu
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which of the following commands updates the linker cache of shared libraries?
A. mkcache
B. soconfig
C. mkldconfig
D. lddconfig
E. ldconfig
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 21
What does the command mount -a do?A. It mounts all available filesystems onto the current directory.
B. It shows all mounted filesystems.
C. It mounts all user mountable filesystems for the current user.
D. It mounts all filesystems listed in /etc/fstab which have the option auto set.
E. It mounts all filesystems listed in /etc/fstab which have the option noauto set.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following commands set the sticky bit for the directory /tmp? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. chmod +s /tmp
B. chmod +t /tmp
C. chmod 1775 /tmp
D. chmod 4775 /tmp
E. chmod 2775 /tmp
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 23
Which of the following commands can be used to display the inode number of a given file?
A. inode
B. ls
C. ln
D. cp
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which of the following commands shows the definition of a given shell command?
A. where
B. stat
C. type
D. case
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What do the permissions -rwSr-xr-x mean for a binary file when it is executed as a command?
A. The command is SetUID and it will be executed with the effective rights of the owner.
B. The command will be executed with the effective rights of the group instead of the owner.
C. The execute flag is not set for the owner. Therefore the SetUID flag is ignored.
D. The command will be executed with the effective rights of the owner and group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which of the following pieces of information of an existing file is changed when a hard link pointing to that
file is created?
A. File size
B. Modify timestamp
C. Link countD. Inode number
E. Permissions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Specify the
file name only without any path.)
Correct Answer: cmdline, /proc/cmdline

QUESTION 28
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal boot sequence?
Correct Answer: dmesg, /bin/dmesg

QUESTION 29
Which world-writable directory should be placed on a separate partition in order to prevent users from
being able to fill up the / filesystem? (Specify the full path to the directory.)
Correct Answer: /tmp, tmp, /var/tmp, /tmp/, /var/tmp/

QUESTION 30
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /etc/yum.repos.d, /etc/yum.repos.d/, yum.repos.d, yum.repos.d/

QUESTION 31
What is the name of the main configuration file for GNU GRUB? (Specify the file name only without any
path.)
Correct Answer: menu.lst, grub.conf, grub.cfg

QUESTION 32
Which option to the yum command will update the entire system? (Specify ONLY the option name without
any additional parameters.)
Correct Answer: update, upgrade

QUESTION 33
Which command will disable swapping on a device? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or
parameters.)
Correct Answer: swapoff, /sbin/swapoff

QUESTION 34
Which Debian package management tool asks the configuration questions for a specific already installed
package just as if the package were being installed for the first time? (Specify ONLY the command without
any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: dpkg-reconfigure

QUESTION 35
Which signal is missing from the following command that is commonly used to instruct a daemon to
reinitialize itself, including reading configuration files?
killall -s _______ daemon
Correct Answer: HUP, SIGHUP, 1

QUESTION 36
Which command displays a list of all background tasks running in the current shell? (Specify ONLY the
command without any path or parameters.)Correct Answer: jobs

QUESTION 37
Which Bash environment variable defines in which file the user history is stored when exiting a Bash
process? (Specify ONLY the variable name.)
Correct Answer: HISTFILE

QUESTION 38
Which command is used in a Linux environment to create a new directory? (Specify ONLY the command
without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: mkdir, /usr/bin/mkdir

QUESTION 39
Which command is used to create and initialize the files used to store quota information? (Specify ONLY
the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: quotacheck

QUESTION 40
Which umask value will result in the default access permissions of 600 (rw——-) for files and 700
(rwx——) for directories? (Specify only the numerical umask value.)
Correct Answer: 0077, 077

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QUESTION 1
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance. You need to ensure that data can be migrated from a production server to two reporting servers with minimal data to ensure that data on the reporting server is always accessible which solution should you use?
A. Database snapshot
B. Log Shipping
C. Change Data Capture
D. AvailabilityGroups
70-462 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for SQL Server 2012?
A. 6GB of hard drive space
B. 1GB of memory
C. 1GHZ CPU speed
D. a graphics card with 2GB video memory
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application. You need to create an object that meets the
following requirements: Takes an input variable Returns a table of values Cannot be referenced within a view Which object should you use?
A. Scalar-valued function
B. Inline function
C. User-defined data type
D. Stored procedure
70-462 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 4
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The
transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting
database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:
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At 14:00 hours, you discover that pages 71, 520, and 713 on one of the database files are corrupted on the reporting
database. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Perform a partial restore.
B. Restore thelatestfullbackup, andrestore thelatest differentialbackup. Then, restore eachlog backuptaken before the
time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
C. Restore the latest full backup.
D. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
E. Perform a page restore.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most
recentfull backup.
G. Perform a point-in-time restore.
H. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
Correct Answer: H
Explanation
Restores a file or filegroup in a multi-filegroup database. Note that under the simple recovery model, the file must belong to a read-only filegroup. After a full file restore, a differential file backup can b

QUESTION 5
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You need to ensure that an OLTP
database that includes up-to-the-minute reporting requirements can be off-loaded from the primary database to another server. You also need to be able to add indexes to the secondary database. Which configuration should you use?
A.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
B.
Two servers configured in the same data center
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
C.
Two servers configured in the same data center
A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10 minutes
A backup server configured as a warm standby
D.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
E.
Two servers configured on the same subnet
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
F.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
G.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
H.
Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center
SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
70-462 pdf Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Reference:

QUESTION 6
What is the minimum recommended amount of RAM for SQL Server 2012 Enterprise?
A. 512 MB
B. 1 GB
C. 2 GB
D. 4 GB
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database. The database is in the Simple recovery mode. You schedule the following backup plan:
Full backup every day at midnight
Differential backups every hour on the hour, except at midnight
The database fails at 20:45 hours. You need to use SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) to begin restoring the database to a new server instance with a minimum amount of data loss. Which options should you select on the Options page of the Restore Database window? (To answer, configure the appropriate option or options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 8
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. When transaction logs grow, SQL Server must send an email message to the database administrators. You need to configure SQL Server to send the email messages. What should you configure?
A. SQL Mail
B. An Extended Events session
C. Alerts and operators in SQL Server Agent
D. Policies under Policy-Based Management
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database instance that uses transparent database encryption.
You plan to move the database from the current server to a new server by using Backup and Restore.
You need to ensure that the database can be restored to the new server. You also need to ensure that the database
remains encrypted at all times. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Explanation

QUESTION 10
You have an index called Employee_IDX on the table Employees. Which of the following will rebuild this index online?
A. ALTER INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees REBUILD WITH (ONLINE = ON);
B. CREATE INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees REBUILD WITH (ONLINE = ON);
C. REBUILD ONLINE INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees;
D. ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE Employee_IDX;
70-462 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following file systems is supported for an SQL Server 2012 installation?
A. EXT4
B. NTFS
C. FAT16
D. EXT3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You have two servers in the same
data center that hosts your production database. You need to ensure that the database remains available if a catastrophic server failure or a disk failure occurs. You also need to maintain transactional consistency of the data across both servers. You need to achieve these goals without manual intervention. Which configuration should you use?
A. Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
B. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
C. Two servers configured in the same data center A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10
minutes A backup server configured as a warm standby
D. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit
Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary
E. Two servers configured in the same data center SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit
Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary
F. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous Commit
Availability Mode
G. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
H. Two servers configured on the same subnet SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
70-462 dumps Correct Answer: H
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which of the following SQL Server 2012 indexes is ordered independently of the actual physical order of the table data on which the index is based?
A. CLUSTERED
B. BITMAP
C. NONCLUSTERED
D. IND_ORDERED
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 14
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a
view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in
several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You want to remove SQL Server Integration Services from a server running the Windows Server 2008 R2 operating
system that also has the Database Engine and SQL Server Analysis Services installed. Which of the following tools can
you use to accomplish this goal?
A. SQLServerManagementStudio
B. SQL Server Configuration Manager
C. Add/Remove Programs inControl Panel
D. SQL Server Installation Center
70-462 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment. You want to deploy a new application that will scale out the workload to at least five different SQL Server instances. You need to ensure that for each copy of the database, users are able to read and write data that will then be synchronized between all of the database instances. Which feature should you use?
A. Database Mirroring
B. Peer-to-Peer Replication
C. Log Shipping
D. AvailabilityGroups
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
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210-060 dumps

exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-18)

QUESTION 1
A technician is preparing to activate the needed services in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to integrate with an IM and Presence server. Which four services must be enabled? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TFTP
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco CTI Manager
D. Cisco Messaging Interface
E. Cisco Intercluster Lookup Service
F. Cisco Extended Functions
G. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
H. Cisco Directory Sync
210-060 exam Correct Answer: ABCG

QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which option would an administrator use to find all unassigned directory numbers in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Route plan report
B. CDR
C. CAR
D. Cisco Reporting Tool
E. Directory number lookup
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An end user is unable to sign into Jabber. Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which three settings for the end user should be checked? (Choose three.)
A. Jabber Advanced Settings
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
D. Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
E. Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
F. Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
G. Jabber Version
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit
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Which method is using the users to access their mailboxes?
A. web access
B. phone access
C. GUI access
D. VUI access
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6
Smith works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. He creates an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. The application displays “Welcome to ABC” on the top-left corner of a form. He writes the following code:
StringBuilder strbuild1 = new StringBuilder(20);
strbuild1.Append(“‘Welcome”);
strbuild1.Append(” “);
strbuild1.Append(“to”);
strbuild1.Append(” “);
strbuild1.Append(“ABC'”);
string str1 = strbuild1.ToString();
Console.WriteLine(str1);
Console.ReadLine();
What is the main purpose of using StringBuilder object in the application?
A. To create dynamic or mutable strings.
B. To concatenate two or more different set of strings or a set of Unicode characters.
C. To convert a value of the StringBuilder object to the String object.
D. To append a specified string to the end of the StringBuilder object.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating a .NET remoting application using .NET Framework 2.0. The object of the application will be shared by multiple applications. You want to use simple, modular, extensible, and XML-based protocol to exchange messages between remoting applications. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Use the SOAP protocol.
B. Use the SoapFormatter class.
C. Use the BinaryFormatter class.
D. Use client activated objects.
210-060 exam Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You create an ASP.NET Web application named MyWebApplication. You want to provide secure access to company’s customers. You want to enable users to access the site from any browser by providing their user name and password. Which of the following authentication methods will you use to accomplish this task?
A. Windows NT
B. Secure Socket Layer
C. Basic
D. Single Sign-On
E. Certificate Server
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You create an application that will be used by all the branches of the company. You use the Regex class in the application to validate some strings. You want to search an input string for an occurrence of a regular expression. Which of the following methods of the Regex class will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Match
B. Matches
C. Equals
D. IsMatch
210-060 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10
You work as an Enterprise Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create a logging utility class using .NET Framework 3.5. The utility class writes logs to event log services. You are required to ensure that the client applications that use the utility class can create an instance of the utility class only if they have access rights to write to the event log services. What will you do?
A. Use role based security in the class constructor.
B. Use declarative security check on the assembly.
C. Use role based security on the class.
D. Use code access security on the class.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. Allen creates an application that will be used to handle security information related to the company. He wants to secure the application by using the most secure authentication method. The method should have a strong key for encryption and send the encrypted password across the network. Which of the following authentication methods will Allen use to accomplish the task?
A. Integrated Windows authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Certificate-based authentication
D. Digest authentication
210-060 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
Mark works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He develops an application, named App1, using Visual Studio .NET. The application contains a Form control, named Form1, which enables users to edit information in a SQL Server database. Mark wants to save all the changes made by users in the database. He defines a boolean variable, named DataIsSaved, in the application code. DataIsSaved indicates whether or not all data are saved in the database. Mark wants to prevent Form1 from closing until all the changes are saved in the database. Which of the following code will he use to accomplish this?
A. protected void Form1_Leave(object sender, System.ComponentModel.CancelEventArgs e) {
if(!DataIsSaved)
B. Cancel = false;
else
C. Cancel = true;
}
D. protected void Form1_Leave(object sender, System.ComponentModel.CancelEventArgs e) {
if(!DataIsSaved)
E. Cancel = true;
else
F. Cancel = false;
}
G. protected void Form1_Closed(object sender, System.ComponentModel.CancelEventArgs e) {
if(!DataIsSaved)
H. Cancel = false;
else
I. Cancel = true;
}
J. protected void Form1_Closing(object sender, System.ComponentModel.CancelEventArgs e) {
if(!DataIsSaved)
K. Cancel = false;
else
L. Cancel = true;
}
M. protected void Form1_Closed(object sender, System.ComponentModel.CancelEventArgs e) {
if(!DataIsSaved)
N. Cancel = true;
else
O. Cancel = false;
}
P. protected void Form1_Closing(object sender, System.ComponentModel.CancelEventArgs e) {
if(!DataIsSaved)
Q. Cancel = true;
else
R. Cancel = false;
}

Answer: F

QUESTION NO: 13
Sam works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He creates a .NET remote object, named Object1. Object1 holds a Hashtable object, or the name and value pairs. Seven client applications use Object1 to get and set property values. Sam wants to ensure that the properties set by one of the client applications can be accessed by all the applications using Object1. Choose the appropriate actions he will take to accomplish this.
A.
210-060 vce Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 14
Martha works as a Software Developer for NetCom Inc. She develops an application, named App1, using Visual Studio .NET. The application contains a form, named MyForm1. MyForm1 contains several controls including a TextBox, named txtDOB. The txtDOB control is used to accept the date of birth from a user. In order to ensure that a user enters a valid date in txtDOB, Martha adds validation logic to the Validating event of txtDOB. When she tests the form by using some invalid dates in txtDOB, the validation logic does not appear to be working as expected. What is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. Martha has set the Locked property of txtDOB to True.
B. Martha has set the CausesValidation property of txtDOB to False.
C. Martha has set the SuppressValidation property of txtDOB to True.
D. Martha has set the TabIndex property of txtDOB to 0.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
You work as an ADO.NET Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ADO.NET application by using .NET Framework 3.5. You are using the System.Linq.Expressions namespace to represent the code expression as objects in the form of expression trees. You want to initialize the members of a newly created object. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Use the MemberBinding class
B. Use the UnaryExpression class
C. Use the MemberBindingType enumeration
D. Use the MemberListBinding class
210-060 exam Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 16
You work as a Web Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a Web application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application is for members only. The behavior of the Web application varies according to the role of the user. The Web application uses the ASP.NET Membership control for creation of user accounts. You are required to find out whether a user is a member of a specific role. What will you do?
A. Pass the role names to the User.IsInRole method.
B. Pass the user names and passwords to the Membership.ValidateUser method.
C. Pass the role names to the Roles.RoleExists method.
D. Pass the user names to the User.IsUserInRole method.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 17
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You develop a multi-threaded application named MyMultThreadApp using Visual Studio .NET. The application logs all warning and informational messages in an event log that keeps track of significant events when the application is running. The event log records information that might be useful for troubleshooting or performance analysis. Which of the following are the considerations that you must keep in mind when logging events with multithreaded components? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. An exclusive lock should be obtained on the log to avoid race conditions.
B. Each shared component should be thread-safe when interacting with an event log.
C. The System.Threading namespace should be used to record the identity of each thread for logging messages.
D. The Debug and Trace classes should be used to log events.
210-060 dumps Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following code snippets is an example of tight encapsulation?
A. private int x;
public void fun(){x=5;}
B. private int x;
private void fun(){x=5;}
C. public int x;
public void fun() {x=5;}
D. protected int x;
protected void fun(){x=5;}
E. int x;
public void fun(){x=5;}
Answer: A

210-060 dumps

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210-060 dumps

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