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101 dumps

exam Latest and Most Accurate F5 101 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 103
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate
Procurements
101 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
A. Ground rules
B. Expert judgment
C. Team-building activities
D. Interpersonal skills
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
A. Only once, at the beginning
B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly
101 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates
101 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 109
Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
101 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
A. Decision tree diagram.
B. Tornado diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,
B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.
101 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Affinity diagram
C. Tree diagram
D. Activity network diagram
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication
technique?
A. Listening
B. Facilitation
C. Meeting management
D. Presentation
101 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements.
B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.

101 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 116
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 117
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:
A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance.
101 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:
A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
101 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:
A. Earned value management.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Work performance information.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
A. Organizational process updates
B. Quality metrics
C. Change requests
D. Quality control measurements
101 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
A. Urgent information need
B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 20.
D. 24.
101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 124
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
101 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 126
An input to Close Project or Phase is:
A. Accepted deliverables,
B. Final products or services,
C. Document updates,
D. Work performance information.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Activity lists.
C. A work breakdown structure.
D. A scope statement.
101 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 128
External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:
A. Customers.
B. Business partners.
C. Sellers.
D. Functional managers.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope
101 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
In a project, total float measures the:
A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.
D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 131
Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?
A. Project Quality Management and Project Time Management
B. Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management
C. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management
D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
101 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit

B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
101 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
A. Historical relationships
B. Dependency determination
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Rolling wave planning
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Change requests.
C. Accepted deliverables.
D. Variance analysis.
101 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 136
A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Performance reporting.
C. Bidder conferences.
D. Reserve analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 137
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
101 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?
A. Acquisition
B. Earned value management
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Forecasting
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 139
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan.
B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.
101 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 143
Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?
A. Force/direct

B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Collaborate/problem solve
101 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 144
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Decomposition
B. Modeling techniques
C. Resource optimization
D. Meetings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:
A. Start-to-start (SS).
B. Start-to-finish (SF).
C. Finish-to-start (FS).
D. Finish-to-finish (FF).
101 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 146
Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
C. Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)
D. Time and Material (T&M)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?
A. $50
B. $100
C. $125
D. $175
101 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:
A. Project management plan.
B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Stakeholder register.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management
101 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 150
In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.
B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.
C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 151
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:
A. Analysis
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Response
101 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 152
Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables.
B. Validated deliverables.
C. Acceptance criteria.
D. Activity resource requirements.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 153
An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Validated changes.
C. The change log.
D. The requirements traceability matrix.
101 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 154
During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
A. Conduct Procurements

B. Plan Procurements
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 155
The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:
A. Validate Scope.
B. Plan Scope Management.
C. Control Scope.
D. Define Scope.
101 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 156
Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?
A. Resource calendar
B. Scope baseline
C. Trend analysis
D. Cost baseline
Correct Answer: D

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